IS THEIR A FLAW IN MY RATIONALE ON SLIPPAGE???

["james vaughn" <drjamesvaughn@xxxxxxxxxxx>]

here's the question.
if i have an sp system that in historical testing makes $100000 last year, 
then i modify the entry, which is on a stop basis always, to enter
at my calculated price, but add 100 pts to the entry.
The program will first check my original entry for execution, if hit,
then it looks and sees if entry+100pts higher could have been hit, if
so then, it takes the fill as calculated entry+100pts, if not, it just
takes calculated entry.
I will assume that the 100 pts added to original entry if filled in 
simulation will be viewed as slippage.
If the results after modification are $110000 in profits, 10k better than 
original entry. than the program actually can benefit from slippage of 100 
pts. In other words, my above logic is different than the accustomed and 
accepted view of slippage as a cost basis i.e., 
profits-tradesxslippage(in$).
Any flaws in my rationale????

                              Dr Vaughn

                              Dr Vaughn