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I'm curious as to what ya'll think of my reasoning here: I'm trying to
understand correlations relative to how one market may lead another.
If two FX pairs are very highly inversly correlated then wouldn't one
look for the abnormalities, where they become much less correlated, as
the points when one pair actually starts leading another? Because how
much could any one lead the other during a high-correlation cycle?
Wouldn't the highest correlations normally occur during a trend and
the lowest during a trading-range/consolidation? Could the intial
breakdown of that high correlation possibly portend the shift from
trend to range and the subsequent reversal back into that high
correlation signify a cycle from range-to-trend?
I'll try to post a chart illustrating this soon. Just wondered if I
was on the right track...
Harold
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